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Nephilim And God's Genocidal Tendencies


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My dad has rebutted my labelling of OT God as a genocidal, infanticidal psychopath. He claims that God had to wipe ou the demonic or Nephelim seed that tainted humanity after the fall of Satan. How do I rebut this explanation?

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God's solution was inept.

The Israelites encountered the Nephilim in Num 13:33, which was long after the flood that was supposed to have eliminated them.

God destroyed life on earth, knowing ahead of time that his solution wouldn't work.

That shows maniacal tendencies.

 

You might also ask your dad to show exactly where the Old Testament says that Satan "fell".

The Old Testament says no such thing.

Satan in the Old Testament is God's servant, and never disobeys a command from God.

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Genesis 6:3 says that the nephilim were there in those days, and also afterwards. Isaiah mentions the fall of Satan "as lightning from heaven"

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Where does it say that the Amalekites, Egyptians, etc. were tainted by the Nephilim? Besides, doesn't Genesis 6:4 refer to the offspring of the Nephilim as the "heroes of old" and "Men of renown?" That does not sound like a taint, it sounds like a praise. And besides again, if God needed to get rid of the Nephilim and their offspring to protect humanity, he could have blinked the Nephilim out of existence before they ever slept with a human woman and causing this tainting. Why would he willing to intervene after the tainting but not before? On multiple levels, this just does not hold up. If your dad tries to pull the old "God's ways are mysterious and we can't understand his reasoning" card, just let him know that if God took the time to record his word then he could have done so in a way that we would understand.

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God can do anything he wants, but he decides to kill innocent people along with the apparent bad ones.

 

What is there to argue about that?

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The nephalim are the grandsons of god. You see god sons saw that the human women were hot shit and gave them the ole donkey dicking and boom you have demi-god nephalim like Hercules!!!!

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Or tell him there is a god and he just likes to

 

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FUCK YOU DOLPHIN!!!!!!

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Genesis 6:3 says that the nephilim were there in those days, and also afterwards. Isaiah mentions the fall of Satan "as lightning from heaven"

If the Nephilim were saved from the flood then they would have needed to be on the ark along with other land based creatures.

Or perhaps they were extraordinary swimmers.

Either way, God didn't keep his word.

The Nephilim are supposed to be hybrid humans.

God promised to wipe mankind off the earth except for Noah and his immediate clan.

 

If the sons of God mated with human females after the flood, producing more Nephilim, then they must have mated with descendants of Noah.

This produces a conundrum that apologists have difficulty explaining away.

It reflects badly on the competence of God.

 

The passage in Isaiah 14 never mentions Satan.

It's a metaphorical taunt to be used against the King of Babylon, who is not Satan.

Satan isn't in Genesis either.

Satan is one of God's many sons who serves as man's accuser in God's court.

He didn't fall from anywhere, but serves as an agent of God to test people.

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My dad has rebutted my labelling of OT God as a genocidal, infanticidal psychopath. He claims that God had to wipe ou the demonic or Nephelim seed that tainted humanity after the fall of Satan. How do I rebut this explanation?

 

Firstly, it's a myth so there's no need to rebut. Second, if the myth were true and your dad correct, god is still a genocidal, infanticidal psychopath the Nephelim notwithstanding. There's little mention of the Nephelim in the bible but there are frequent genocides. If your dad is going to give god a pass over the Nephelim then you probably aren't going to gain much ground there.

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