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Anushka

If Christianity is wrong, how did B.C. & A.D. happen?

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Does A.D. suggest Christianity became really popular before 1 A.D.? 

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No. The common usage of the terms came around later. The dating system was changed once Christianity gained their power hold on the Roman Empire. They then just counted backwards to get to 1 AD which apparently was when Jesus was born. There needs to be no truth - only someone from some religion applying arbitrary dates. You'll note the Muslims have their own dating system. Nothing in their dating system suggests that its true.

 

Here is an article about it.

 

https://www.quora.com/When-did-we-start-using-B-C-and-A-D-How-did-people-keep-track-of-time-before-this-was-implemented

 

 

As a side note I had a chuckle at this question:

https://www.quora.com/Do-atheists-believe-in-a-time-called-B-C\  :lmao:

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The proper terms are CE and BCE. There was no christ and never was so there is no such thing as bc and ad. 

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On 8/26/2018 at 10:35 PM, Aries256 said:

The proper terms are CE and BCE. There was no christ and never was so there is no such thing as bc and ad. 

 

That's a pretty bold claim.

 

I don't believe Jesus was God but also can't say he didn't exist.

 

In fact, it's not unlikely that he did. It's not really an extraordinary claim.

 

That doesn't mean that the Bible stories are true, just that I don't see any reason to think that those stories weren't based on an actual person who may or may not have been executed by the Romans.

 

I look at it much the same way as the difference between the Bishop Nicholas and Santa Clause. Sure, the Bishop existed, but that doesn't mean he lives at the North Pole and flies around the world with magic reindeer handing out presents.

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