• 0

If Christianity is wrong, how did B.C. & A.D. happen?


Does A.D. suggest Christianity became really popular before 1 A.D.? 

Share this post

Link to post
Share on other sites

2 answers to this question

Recommended Posts


As with everything these days, the cost of keeping the Ex-C forum up and running has been rising. Inflation? In part, but the primary reason is this: As participation in the forums grows, costs increase. The Ex-C forums will remain free of charge to everyone, but if you believe this little corner of the Internet provides value to you or others, and you feel inclined to help keep us online, please consider making a one-time donation or becoming a regular contributor. Contribution options appear under the "Upgrade" link above, and can be accessed by clicking here.

Oh, and as an incentive (no, you won't be given any bogus promises of eternal bliss), if you do become a regular contributor by signing up for any monthly or yearly patron package, this annoying ADVO will disappear.

And now, back to the regularly scheduled conversation...

  • 0

No. The common usage of the terms came around later. The dating system was changed once Christianity gained their power hold on the Roman Empire. They then just counted backwards to get to 1 AD which apparently was when Jesus was born. There needs to be no truth - only someone from some religion applying arbitrary dates. You'll note the Muslims have their own dating system. Nothing in their dating system suggests that its true.


Here is an article about it.





As a side note I had a chuckle at this question:

https://www.quora.com/Do-atheists-believe-in-a-time-called-B-C\  :lmao:

  • Thanks 1

Share this post

Link to post
Share on other sites

Create an account or sign in to comment

You need to be a member in order to leave a comment

Create an account

Sign up for a new account in our community. It's easy!

Register a new account

Sign in

Already have an account? Sign in here.

Sign In Now