Jump to content

Was Mary Really A Virgin?


AtheistMommy
 Share

Recommended Posts

My husband (Reverend Atheistar) found a Jack Chick booklet at my son's doctor's office the other day. On the back it had an email address (jlynch68@cox.net) apparently he's inching for attention. The booklet story was about Mary and her conception. My question is, was it accustom for people back in the day that Mary was suppose to have existed, to not have sex before marriage? Did the bible exist before Mary had Jesus? Did they really wait until after they were married?

 

It doesn't make sense that she would be a virgin for that long. Weren't they married when the holy ghost (god's penis) came unto her? I'd like to know.

Link to comment
Share on other sites

My question is, was it accustom for people back in the day that Mary was suppose to have existed, to not have sex before marriage?

Most people in the biblical times were had arranged marriages before around there early teens. It was hard to have pre-marital sex because almost everyone was married. That's why adultery and rape are talked about more. And why have premarital sex when you can just buy a wife from a father? While your at it buy two more and a concubine.

 

Did the bible exist before Mary had Jesus?
No

 

Did they really wait until after they were married?
If the whole story is true, it's more likely she was raped since Joseph made a big deal about it.

 

It doesn't make sense that she would be a virgin for that long.
How long did she wait?

 

Weren't they married when the holy ghost (god's penis) came unto her? I'd like to know.

Married to Joseph or god?
Link to comment
Share on other sites

How long did she wait?

 

Well, they were already married ( at least from what I remember from how the story goes). You'd think they would have sex as soon as they were married.

 

Weren't they married when the holy ghost (god's penis) came unto her? I'd like to know.

Married to Joseph or god?

 

Married to Joseph.

Link to comment
Share on other sites

Protestants believe that Jesus had brothers and sisters. They are mentioned in the Bible.

 

Catholics think that these brothers and sisters were either cousins or children from Joseph's previous marriage.

 

In John 8 The pharisees say, "At least we are not illegitimate," implying that this was a rumor that was going around about Jesus.

 

I believe she was a virgin when she had Jesus but I take the Protestant view that she had kiddo's after she had Jesus.

 

Well, given the time period in which they were suppose to have lived, it makes sense that she would have had many many children after her first born. It would also make sense that she would have a few failed pregnancies and some of her children would have died, if not herself dying in the act of giving birth.

 

But what I don't understand is, why was she a virgin if she was married?

Link to comment
Share on other sites

AtheistMom,

 

Marriage and sex was viewed much differently 2,000 years ago, especially in a Jewish culture. Now, I am going to answer this in terms of the biblical story, not touching upon if it is true or not.

  • The gospels that detail this, say that Mary and Joseph were betrothed, not married.
  • In the culture of the day, marraige had two parts. The first was the pre-arranged betrothal/engagement. The woman is technically promised to change from the property of the father to the future husband at some time in the future. The second is the actual marriage, where the transfer of title, is done.
  • This is why the Bible says that a woman who is not a virgin on the marriage night is grounds for serious financial and or other penalties.
  • It would be like agreeing to buy a new car and then getting one 100,000 miles on it.
  • Thus in the biblical story, Mary being pregnant before the actual marriage transfer would have been a breach of contract and technically constituted adultry.
  • Don't freak out on me, this is how they looked at things back then. Women were property.

Link to comment
Share on other sites

I've always heard (thought I can't find a reference) that the historic meaning of the word "virgin" was "young girl," and that it only came to refer to the absense of sex in recent years.

 

Anyhow, I think the whole story is just the predecessor of the "got pregenant from the swimming pool" excuse. "No, really, it was god. I couldn't help it!" A truly SPECTACULAR excuse!

 

BTW, Bruce, I really love your signature line!

Link to comment
Share on other sites

AtheistMom,

 

Marriage and sex was viewed much differently 2,000 years ago, especially in a Jewish culture. Now, I am going to answer this in terms of the biblical story, not touching upon if it is true or not.

  • The gospels that detail this, say that Mary and Joseph were betrothed, not married.
  • In the culture of the day, marraige had two parts. The first was the pre-arranged betrothal/engagement. The woman is technically promised to change from the property of the father to the future husband at some time in the future. The second is the actual marriage, where the transfer of title, is done.
  • This is why the Bible says that a woman who is not a virgin on the marriage night is grounds for serious financial and or other penalties.
  • It would be like agreeing to buy a new car and then getting one 100,000 miles on it.
  • Thus in the biblical story, Mary being pregnant before the actual marriage transfer would have been a breach of contract and technically constituted adultry.
  • Don't freak out on me, this is how they looked at things back then. Women were property.

 

 

 

I tend to take the same stance on this issue. I've heard that she was supposed to have been a virgin all her life, but I find it very hard to believe that any woman in biblical times who was married (as most women were) would be a virgin after the wedding night.

Link to comment
Share on other sites

In John 8 The pharisees say, "At least we are not illegitimate," implying that this was a rumor that was going around about Jesus.

 

Horseshit.

 

I just read John 8. There is nothing in it in reference to Jesus himself being a bastard.

 

Here is the only section where illegitimacy even comes up, and it is NOT in reference to Jesus at all. In fact the implication is that JESUS accuses THEM in regard to Abraham.

 

http://www.biblegateway.com/passage/?searc...&version=31

 

34Jesus replied, "I tell you the truth, everyone who sins is a slave to sin. 35Now a slave has no permanent place in the family, but a son belongs to it forever. 36So if the Son sets you free, you will be free indeed. 37I know you are Abraham's descendants. Yet you are ready to kill me, because you have no room for my word. 38I am telling you what I have seen in the Father's presence, and you do what you have heard from your father.[c]"

 

39"Abraham is our father," they answered.

 

"If you were Abraham's children," said Jesus, "then you would[d] do the things Abraham did. 40As it is, you are determined to kill me, a man who has told you the truth that I heard from God. Abraham did not do such things. 41You are doing the things your own father does."

"We are not illegitimate children," they protested. "The only Father we have is God himself."

Link to comment
Share on other sites

AtheistMom,

 

Marriage and sex was viewed much differently 2,000 years ago, especially in a Jewish culture. Now, I am going to answer this in terms of the biblical story, not touching upon if it is true or not.

  • The gospels that detail this, say that Mary and Joseph were betrothed, not married.
  • In the culture of the day, marraige had two parts. The first was the pre-arranged betrothal/engagement. The woman is technically promised to change from the property of the father to the future husband at some time in the future. The second is the actual marriage, where the transfer of title, is done.
  • This is why the Bible says that a woman who is not a virgin on the marriage night is grounds for serious financial and or other penalties.
  • It would be like agreeing to buy a new car and then getting one 100,000 miles on it.
  • Thus in the biblical story, Mary being pregnant before the actual marriage transfer would have been a breach of contract and technically constituted adultry.
  • Don't freak out on me, this is how they looked at things back then. Women were property.

 

In other words ....nothing has changed in the most Christian households.

& perhap Lying about who or what you 'laid' around with is still entirely kosker.

 

:grin:

Link to comment
Share on other sites

I tend to take the same stance on this issue. I've heard that she was supposed to have been a virgin all her life, but I find it very hard to believe that any woman in biblical times who was married (as most women were) would be a virgin after the wedding night.

 

 

Exactly :grin:

Link to comment
Share on other sites

Guest
This topic is now closed to further replies.
 Share

×
×
  • Create New...

Important Information

By using this site, you agree to our Guidelines.